2014年5月29日星期四

Avaya 3100.1 132-S-708.1 6006-1, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: 3100.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura Communication Manager Administration Exam)
Questions et réponses: 58 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 132-S-708.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Specialist: Avaya Voice Self-Service Design Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 6006-1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager (R5.2.1) Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 An Avaya Voice Self-Service customer has a limited service contract for IT and telecommunications.
They only have staff available from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m.; otherwise they are available using a pager. The
contact center uses Avaya contact center and reporting solutions. The contact center has staff onsite 24
hours a day. They actively monitor their agent pool and have offered to monitor Voice Self-Service ports if
they can have access to the data center to monitor the system's health. There are significant security
concerns with providing this type of access to non-technical staff. Which alternative would allow the
contact center personnel some monitoring capabilities?
A.Place the self-service ports behind the Communication Manager; monitor the ports on the Call
Management System (CMS) using real-time reports.
B.Place the self-service ports in front of the Communication Manager; monitor the ports on the Call
Management System (CMS) using real-time reports.
C.Place the self-service ports behind the Communication Manager; turn on Redirect On No-Answer
(RONA) to route calls to supervisory personnel when ports go out of service.
D.Place the self-service ports in front the Communication Manager; turn on Redirect On No-Answer
(RONA) to route calls to supervisory personnel when ports go out of service.
Answer:A

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NO.2 A current Avaya Interactive Response (IR) customer is aware that the industry is moving to web-based
self-service architectures. In addition to the benefits of moving to advanced technologies, which two
business elements should be considered? (Choose two.)
A.need to replace the speech servers
B.capital investments in current equipment
C.time needed to convert any existing TAS applications to VoiceXML
D.inability to use VoIP until Avaya Voice Portal has been implemented
Answer:B C

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NO.3 Which two hardware components are required for Avaya Voice Portal using Voice over IP? (Choose
two.)
A.NMS boards
B.Dialogic boards
C.Intel/AMD server
D.Communication Manager
Answer:C D

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NO.4 Which integration alternative provides optimal routing to an agent based on information gathered at any
given point within a Voice Self-Service application?
A.Avaya Interaction Center
B.Avaya Proactive Contact
C.Avaya Operational Analyst
D.Avaya Interactive Intelligence
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which two methods can be used to get and put data between Avaya Interactive Response (IR) and
Avaya Interaction Center (IC)? (Choose two.)
A.LAN Gateway
B.DLG Connector
C.VOX Connector provided with IC
D.IC Connector provided with Avaya Dialog Designer
Answer:C D

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NO.6 A healthcare company operates a mail order prescription business. Its contact center primarily takes
orders from existing and new customers. Upper management has decided not to implement an Avaya
Voice Self-Service solution, but use a competitor instead. The IT staff believes that once they implement
the new system, it will not operate as advertised. The IT staff asks you what they can do to ensure that
their application development time is not wasted in the event that they ultimately decide to migrate to
Avaya Voice Portal in the future. What is the most cost-effective advice you can give the IT staff?
A.Advise them to create their application using the competitor's proprietary tool set.
B.Advise them to create an application that exposes the weaknesses of the competitor platform.
C.Advise them to escalate the decision about the platform since it will be very difficult to convert later on.
D.Advise them to create their application in VoiceXML so that there will be portability to Avaya Voice
Portal.
Answer:D

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NO.7 Which two hardware components are required for Avaya Interactive Response (IR) using Voice over IP?
(Choose two.)
A.NMS boards
B.Dialogic boards
C.Sun Sparc-based server
D.Communication Manager
Answer:C D

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NO.8 A thriving mail order business has a busy contact center that takes orders from existing and new
customers. To process routine orders and reduce staffing costs, they have chosen to implement an Avaya
Voice Self-Service solution. They want a sophisticated seamless solution for routing calls to agents. They
want callers to be identified, serviced (provide routine information), and routed to an agent with minimal
input from the caller. Which two speech elements would be required to implement this solution? (Choose
two.)
A.Voice over IP (VoIP)
B.Text-to-Speech (TTS)
C.Speech Recognition (SR)
D.Speech Application Builder (SAB)
Answer:B C

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Meilleur Business-Objects SABE201 SABE501V3.0 QAWI301V3.0 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: SABE201
Nom d'Examen: Business-Objects (BusinessObjects(TM) Enterprise Certified Professional XI - Level One)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: SABE501V3.0
Nom d'Examen: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Business Objects Enterprise XI 3.0 - Update.)
Questions et réponses: 72 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Business Objects Web Intelligence XI 3)
Questions et réponses: 57 Q&As

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NO.1 What options do users have for viewing reports in the Central Management Console (CMC)?
A.They can choose any viewer that is available in the CMC preferences.
B.They can view reports only with the CMC viewer.
C.They cannot view reports in the CMC, only administer the content.
D.They can view reports only with the DHTML viewers.
Answer:A

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NO.2 Select two true statements from below. (Choose two.)
A.You cannot copy Calendar objects in CMC > Calendars area of administration.
B.You can create your own Calendars in BusinessObjects Enterprise; you have to use the pre-build
business calendars only.
C.You can schedule Web Intelligence documents based on an existing calendar.
D.Calendars can be created in InfoView.
Answer:B C

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NO.3 Which two statements are true regarding user access rights to a given object in BusinessObjects
Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A.Explicitly denied user access overrides all accumulated rights.
B.Objects inherit security from parent folders.
C.Global rights override all other rights.
D.Users inherit rights from the default group to which they belong.
Answer:A B

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NO.4 Where does the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure store a successful Web Intelligence
document instance?
A.The Output File Repository Server (FRS)
B.The Web Intelligence Report Server
C.The Web Intelligence Job Server
D.The Output Application Server (OAS)
Answer:A

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NO.5 How do you disable anonymous access in BusinessObjects Enterprise?
A.Within InfoView uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
B.Within Central Management Console (CMC) disable Guest account.
C.Within Central Configuration Manager (CCM) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
D.Within Central Management Console (CMC) uncheck the option Disable anonymous access.
Answer:B

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NO.6 Once you grant the right to an application value (e.g. Print Documents set to Grant) to a user/group on
a specific application (e.g. Desktop Intelligence), you will still be able to grant that right (e.g. print) to one
Desktop Intelligence document but not the other Desktop Intelligence document.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.7 The InfoView is mostly used for which of the following tasks:
A.Mostly for administering content
B.Exclusively for viewing reports
C.Viewing information about reports (Encyclopedia and Discussions)
D.Accessing information and some limited content administration
Answer:D

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NO.8 Which two actions does BusinessObjects Enterprise take when an instance is removed from the system?
(Choose two.)
A.Deletes the instance file from the Output File Repository Server
B.Deletes the record of the instance from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C.Keeps the instance file in the Output File Repository Server
D.Keeps a record of the instance in the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
Answer:A B

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RSA meilleur examen 050-SEPROGRC-01, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 050-SEPROGRC-01
Nom d'Examen: RSA (RSA Certified SE Professional in Governance, Risk and Compliance)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 The Audit Management solution includes audit-related applications as well as a set of
applications related to what other area?
A. Risk Management
B. Vendor Management
C. Staffing Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: C

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7. The Business Continuity Management solution also includes applications that address which
two of the following issues? (Choose two)
A. Crisis Events
B. Evidence Gathered
C. Disaster Recovery
D. Incident Management
E. Investigations In Progress
Answer: A,C

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8. The Compliance Management solution readily interacts with all of the following RSA Archer
solutions EXCEPT:
A. Risk Management
B. Policy Management
C. Incident Management
D. Enterprise Management
Answer: C

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9. The Enterprise Management solution is split into which two sub-solutions?
A. Asset Management and Company Hierarchy
B. Business Infrastructure and Enterprise Hierarchy
C. Organizational Structure and Asset Management
D. Business Hierarchy and Enterprise Infrastructure
Answer: D

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10. The Incident Management solution uses which application as its central starting point?
A. Contacts
B. Incidents
C. Investigations
D. Response Procedures
Answer: B

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NO.2 When a notification isn't received as expected, it is likely something is configured incorrectly in:
A. The Notification Reports
B. The configuration database
C. The notification template itself
D. The application supporting the notification
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the minimum operating system requirement for the RSA Archer Web Server?
A. Microsoft Windows 2000 Server
B. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 R2
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
Answer: B

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NO.4 How many databases are needed to support the RSA Archer Platform?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. One database is needed for every application created in the system.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Administrators can access features on the Administration tab to do all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Create new records
B. Configure questionnaires
C. Add new fields to applications
D. Change the colors of the system
Answer: A

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NO.6 The Preferences menu in the top frame of the system allows users to do all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Select workspaces for display
B. Update user profile information
C. Subscribe to email notifications
D. Update records within applications
Answer: D

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Dernières SCP SCP-500 SC0-451 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: SCP-500
Nom d'Examen: SCP (SolarWinds Certified Professional Exam)
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

Code d'Examen: SC0-451
Nom d'Examen: SCP (Tactical Perimeter Defense)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 Your current deployment has multiple Orion NPM serversmonitoring multiplelocationsfrom a single site.
This is producing inaccurate dataandhigh WAN bandwidth utilization.
Whatare the twomost efficientways to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A.deploy Orion NPMat each remote location
B.deploy Orion Enterprise Operations Console
C.deploy an additional Orion Poller
D.deploy an additional Orion Web Server
E.deploy an Orion Hot Standby
Answer:AB

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NO.2 Which two performance metrics can be affected by proper QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A.jitter
B.shaping
C.marking
D.queuing
E.latency
Answer:AE

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NO.3 Orion NPM is monitoring the performance of DS-3 utilizing standard MIBs in the ifTable. Occasionally,
the reported traffic rates for this interface spike well above45 Mbps.
What is the most likely cause?
A.heavy network traffic
B.carrier misconfiguration
C.counter rollovers
D.database issues
Answer:C

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NO.4 Which two reporting requirements should you consider when specifying data roll-up settings for a
network management system (NMS)? (Choose two.)
A.dataencryption
B.data format
C.data granularity
D.monitoring coverage
E.data retention
Answer:CE

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NO.5 A network engineer is enabling SNMP on their network devices and needs to ensureit will use message
integrity.
Which version of SNMP should they use?
A.SNMPv1
B.SNMPv2c
C.SNMPv3
D.SNMPv4
Answer:C

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NO.6 The data center teamrequires that they be alerted if any of the servers in a remote site go
down.However, they do NOT want to receive alerts when the remote site connection goes down.
Which two configuration steps should you take within your network management system (NMS) to meet
these requirements? (Choose two.)
A.set up alerts on server status
B.set up alerts on the remote connection status
C.set each of the servers as dependencies for each other
D.set up the remote connection as a dependency for each of the servers
E.set up alerts on the remote router status
Answer:AD

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NO.7 Which management protocol should you use to analyze network traffic in and out of a router
interface?
A.WMI
B.Syslog
C.IP service level agreement (SLA)
D.sFlow
Answer:D

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NO.8 What is an advantage of using SNMPv2c over using SNMPv1?
A.username parameter
B.get bulk command
C.get next command
D.32 bit counters
E.authentication and encryption
Answer:B

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A10 dernières questions d'examen certification CIPS et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: A10
Nom d'Examen: CIPS (Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply)
Questions et réponses: 142 Q&As

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NO.1 Q6. Which of the following tools of analysis can be used to classify stock?
A. Value chain analysis
B. ABC analysis
C. SMART analysis
D. Quantum analysis
Topic 1, D
D
NO: 8 CORRECT TEXT
Q17. An organisation wishes to review its procurement processes to try and achieve
operational benefits.
You have been asked by the senior materials manager to advise on how the
process should proceed, as follows:
(a) List THREE key tasks where buyers' performance is directly linked to the
objectives of supply management.
(b) For each of the three key tasks, give an example of how the purchaser??s
performance could be measured.
(c) Explain how a review of these key tasks could benefit an organisation.
Topic 5, B
B
9.
Q2. Which of the following is Pareto's Law?
A. The law of supply and demand
B. The law of vendor rating
C. The 80/20 rule
D. The 90/30 rule
10.
Q3. Which one of the following is a recognised measure of financial performance?
A. Stock exchange viability test
B. CLIP performance
C. Net profit before tax
D. Sales analysis

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NO.2 Advanced Certificate in Purchasing and Supply
Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply
A10
Senior Assessor's Report
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
The senior assessor??s report is written in order to provide candidates with feedback relating to
the examination. It is designed as a tool for candidates ?¡ìC both those who have sat the
examination and those who wish to use as part of their revision for future examinations.
Candidates are advised to refer to the Examination Techniques Guide (see the following link
http://www.cips.org/documents/ExaminationtechniquesguideFeb07.pdf) as well as this senior
assessor??s report.
The senior assessor??s report aims to provide the following information:
* An indication of how to approach the examination question
* An indication of the points the answer should include and how marks are allocated
* An indication of candidate performance for the examination question
APPENDIX
A syllabus matrix for the examination is included as an appendix. It highlights the learning
objectives of the syllabus unit content that each question is testing.
The unit content guides are available to download at the following link:
http://www.cips.org/studyqualify/cipsqualifications/syllabuses/
ADDITIONAL SOURCES OF INFORMATION
The Supply Management magazine is a useful source of information and candidates are advised
to include it in their reading during their study. Please see the following link to the Supply
Management website http://www.supplymanagement.com/
Analysis of Section A
Many candidates achieved moderate marks for this section. There were a few quite low scores
and very few high scores for this section, some candidates gaining 20/20 marks. Section A
questions are designed to test the candidates?? understanding of key purchasing principles and
knowledge of the syllabus.
I recommend that candidates practise questions from past papers in order to improve their
performance on this section ?¡ìC it is vital to be able to make the right decision from the four
available options, without spending too much time on the question.
SECTION B
Analysis of Section A
Many candidates achieved moderate marks for this section. There were a few quite low scores
and very few high scores for this section, some candidates gaining 20/20 marks. Section A
questions are designed to test the candidates?? understanding of key purchasing principles and
knowledge of the syllabus.
I recommend that candidates practise questions from past papers in order to improve their
performance on this section ?¡ìC it is vital to be able to make the right decision from the four
available options, without spending too much time on the question.
SECTION B
Question 11
Answer should identify FIVE of the following key points (1 mark was allocated for each correct
point) - initial briefing regarding performance areas, identification of what the organisation requires
from the employee, highlighting of any problems, is performance on track?, feedback during the
meeting, can the employer provide any assistance and have any training needs been identified.
The qualities of responses to this question were quite high and many candidates scored a good
level of marks.
Question 12
Candidates were required to LIST any FIVE of the following - increased leverage, ease of control
of fewer suppliers, greater opportunities of negotiation, increased joint development potential,
value adding initiatives may be explored, more use of supplier agreements, less transactional
activity, more use of strategic procurement.
The majority of candidates answered this question very well, with strong responses giving four or
five correct points. Weaker answers gave incorrect examples of the benefits of reducing the total
number of suppliers.
Question 13
Candidates were required to explain TWO ways in which purchasers could achieve continuous
professional development. Candidates should recognise that 2 ? marks are available for the
explanation of each 'way'. This breaks down as 1 mark available for identification of each method
with up to a further 1? marks available for the explanation of how the method used would benefit
the purchaser (or their employer). Areas that answers could include were: own study, attendance
at professional association meetings, attendance on courses/distance learning, formal training,
site visits, job rotation, or academic achievement.
The overall approach to this question could have been better. This is a key section within the
learning outcomes of this unit and many candidates performed poorly and identified areas that
were irrelevant to the context of the question. A few strong answers managed to correctly identify
two ways and briefly explained the value of the concept, in the context of purchaser's professional
development.
Question 14
Part (a) asked for THREE correctly titled key performance indicators (KPIs), for example, stockturns,
service levels, stock damage, stock accuracy, accuracy of pick rates (1 mark for each
appropriate KPI, up to 3 marks). Part (b) required candidates to explain how the use of KPIs can
improve the management of stock.
Many candidates gave incorrect KPIs for part (a), or failed to list insufficient KPIs. Many poor
answers focused on efficiency and effectiveness, rather than actually identify a KPI measure.
Following on from this part (b) was poorly answered as a result of the candidate failing to
understand the context of the question. This is a key part of the unit content and it is important that
candidates address this syllabus topic.
Question 15
Benchmarking is a key concept and allows buyers to assess the suitability or performance of a
supplier when compared to a known standard.
Part (a) required candidates to describe the purpose of supplier benchmarking. Benchmarking
provides information which may be used to select the correct supplier or motivate a potential
supplier to improve its products or overall performance.
Part (b) required candidates to list two problems that can be encountered with benchmarking.
There were many weak answers to this question and this may suggest a knowledge gap in the
candidates who sat this paper. Many responses gave a poor or inappropriate response to part (a)
and incorrect examples for part (b). Some answers gained marks for part (b) but were awarded no
marks for an incorrect answer to part (a).
Question 16
Candidates were required to explain TWO measurements that contribute to a simple vendor
measurement system. Examples that could have been explained are: quality ?¡ìC quantity of
acceptable deliveries as a percentage, deliveries ?¡ìC percentage of accurate on-time deliveries,
after sales service ?¡ìC response time set against an agreed target
Many candidates scored highly on this question by correctly identifying two measures and then
giving an appropriate explanation. A few candidates gave inappropriate answers or failed to
adequately explain what the measure was.
Topic 4, E
E

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NO.3 CORRECT TEXT
Q16. Identify FIVE areas that should be covered when appraising the buyer's performance.
Topic 1, D
D

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NO.4 Topic 1, D
D
1. CORRECT TEXT
Q11. Identify the FIVE stages that should be followed to ensure an effective staff appraisal.
Topic 2, F
F

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NO.5 THE CHARTERED INSTITUTE OF PURCHASING &SUPPLY
ADVANCED CERTIFICATE IN PURCHASING AND SUPPLY
Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply Management
A10
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
*Ensure that you have been handed the correct examination paper.
*Ensure that you have been handed the correct examination paper.
*SECTION B: Questions 11?¡ìC16 are worth 5 marks each. You are advised to spend
approximately 50 minutes on this section.
*SECTION C: Questions 17?¡ìC19 require full answers with examples where appropriate.
Question 17 is worth 20 marks. Questions 18 and 19 are worth 15 marks each. You are advised to
spend a minimum of half an hour on each question.
*Answers should be written in this answer booklet in the spaces provided. If you require
continuation paper you should request this from the invigilator. Your candidate number and
question number must be clearly marked on each sheet of continuation paper.
*All answers must be written in ink. Pencil should only be used where graphs/diagrams are
required. Cross out any work which you do not wish to be examined.
*Rough working must be shown, and crossed out.
*The use of silent, battery-operated, non-programmable calculators is permitted.

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NO.6 CORRECT TEXT
Q17. Microfast Foods is concerned about the cost of holding large quantities of stocks for its food
processing operation, in particular the issue of the high cost of perishable ingredients and
'waste'. The company has no formal procedure for tracking levels and usage of inventory
within its stores. The managing director of Microfast has asked you to advise him as follows:
a) Briefly explain to the managing director why it is important to continually review and
measure inventory levels.
b) Within the stores and warehouse environment there are THREE factors that need to be
examined ?¡ìC Economy, Efficiency and Effectiveness ?¡ìC in relation to performance
measures. The managing director is unsure of the detail. Provide a brief explanation of
each in the context of this business.

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NO.7 Q3. Which one of the following performance indicators is best used to assess whether there are
slow moving stock items in a store?
A. Total number of items held
B. Average number of stock issues over a period
C. Total value of stock held
D. Average number of deliveries received
Topic 3, A
A

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Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur FileMaker FM0-303 FM0-304

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Questions et réponses: 191 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three functions can be performed using the Save Records As PDF script step? (Choose three.)
A. Append to an existing PDF file
B. Add a password to an existing PDF file
C. Specify the magnification for the initial view
D. Enable the copying of text, images, and other content
E. Set the color scale of the document to Black & White
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 Given: A one-to-many relationship from Planet to Moon. Which two formulas could be used as a
calculation field in the Planet table to return the name of the last related Moon record? (Choose two.)
A. Max (Planet::Name)
B. GetNthRecord (Planet::Name ; Count (Planet::Name))
C. GetNthRecord (Planet::Name ; Max (Planet::Name))
D. Let ( planetList = List (Planet::Name) ;
GetValue (planetList ; ValueCount (planetList)))
Answer: BD

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NO.3 What are the theoretical maximum limits of file size and record count in FileMaker Pro 9?
A. 8 gigabytes file size and 64 billion records
B. 64 gigabytes file size and 64 billion records
C. 2 gigabytes file size and 100 million records
D. 8 terabytes file size and 64 quadrillion records
Answer: D

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NO.4 When running FileMaker Server 9 Advanced in an environment that uses a firewall, which ports, at a
minimum, need to be open for FileMaker Pro 9 and FileMaker Server Admin Console to communicate
with FileMaker Server Advanced across the firewall from an end user machine?
A. Ports 5003, 5006, 50003
B. Ports 2399, 5003, 16000
C. Ports 5003, 16000, 16001
D. Ports 16000, 16001,16004
Answer: C

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NO.5 Script A:
Allow User Abort [Off]
Go To Layout ["Layout1"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
Perform Script ["Script B"]
Go To Layout ["Layout2"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
Script B:
Go To Layout ["Layout3"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
Allow User Abort [On]
Go to Layout "Layout4"]
Pause/Resume Script [Indefinitely]
When Script A is run, on which layout(s) will both the "Continue" and "Cancel" buttons be displayed
during the Pause/Resume script steps? (Assume the Status Area is visible.)
A. Layout4
B. Layout1 and Layout3
C. Layout1 and Layout2
D. Layout2 and Layout4
E. Layout1, Layout2, and Layout3
Answer: D

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
A user can install FileMaker Server, the Web Publishing Engine, and all of the associated software
components on the same machine as the web server. Which two of the following groups of ports must
be open to provide database services, web services, and administrative services via the Admin Console?
(Choose two.)
A. 80, 5003, 16004
B. 80, 5003, 16000
C. 5003, 5006, 16014
D. 16001,16016, 16018
E. 16001, 16004, 16007
Answer: BD

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NO.7 Which three of the following are supported operating systems for FileMaker Server 9 and Filemaker
Server 9 Advanced? (Choose three.)
A. Mac OS X Server 10.4.9
B. Mac OS X Server 10.3.9
C. Windows NT Server SP4
D. Windows XP Professional SP2
E. Windows 2003 Server Standard Edition SP2
Answer: ADE

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NO.8 In order to retain FileMaker Pro 6 database behavior, FileMaker Pro 9 may insert a Select Window
script step after which two of the following script steps as the file is converted? (Choose two.)
A. Open File
B. Go To Layout
C. Perform Script
D. Refresh Window
E. Go to Related Record
Answer: CE

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Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Security Administration NGX II (156-315.1)......)
Questions et réponses: 205 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert R71)
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NO.1 Exhibit:
KillTest is using a mesh VPN Community to create a site-to-site VPN. The VPN
properties in this mesh Community is displayed in the exhibit.
Which of the following statements are true?
A. If Jack changes the settings, "Perform key exchange encryption with" from "3DES" to
"DES", she will enhance the VPN Community's security and reduce encryption overhead.
B. Mrs Bill must change the data-integrity settings for this VPN Community. MD5 is incompatible with
AES.
C. If KillTest changes the setting "Perform IPSec data encryption with" from
"AES-128" to "3DES", Jack will increase the encryption overhead.
D. Her VPN Community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption, using the
longest key VPN-1 NGX supports.
Answer: C

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NO.2 KillTest is the Security Administrator for KillTest .com. KillTest .com FTP
servers have old hardware and software. Certain FTP commands cause the FTP
servers to malfunction. Upgrading the FTP Servers is not an option this time.
Which of the following options will allow KillTest to control which FTP
commands pass through the Security Gateway protecting the FTP servers?
A. Global Properties->Security Server ->Security Server->Allowed FTP Commands
B. SmartDefense->Application Intelligence->FTP Security Server
C. Rule Base->Action Field->Properties
D. Web Intelligence->Application Layer->FTP Settings
E. FTP Service Object->Advanced->Blocked FTP Commands
Answer: B

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NO.3 KillTest .com has many VPN-1 Edge gateways at various branch offices, to allow
VPN-1 SecureClient users to access KillTest .com resources. For security reasons,
KillTest .com's Secure policy requires all Internet traffic initiated behind the
VPN-1 Edge gateways first be inspected by your headquarters' VPN-1 Pro Security
Gateway. How do you configure VPN routing in this star VPN Community?
A. To the Internet an other targets only
B. To the center and other satellites, through the center
C. To the center only
D. To the center, or through the center to other satellites, then to the Internet and other
VPN targets
Answer: D

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NO.4 KillTest is concerned that a denial-of-service (DoS) attack may affect her VPN
Communities. She decides to implement IKE DoS protection. Jack needs to
minimize the performance impact of implementing this new protectdion.
Which of the following configurations is MOST appropriate for Mrs. Bill?
A. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Puzzles", and Support IKE
DoS protection from unidentified source to "Stateless"
B. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source, and Support IKE DoS
protection from unidentified soruce to "Puzzles"
C. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Stateless", and Support
IKE DoS protection from unidentified source to "Puzzles".
D. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source, and "Support IKE DoS
protection" from unidentified source to "Stateless".
E. Set Support IKE DoS protection from identified source to "Stateless", and Support
IKE DoS protection from unidentified source to "None".
Answer: D

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NO.5 In a distributed VPN-1 Pro NGX environment, where is the Internal Certificate
Authority (ICA) installed?
A. On the Security Gateway
B. Certificate Manager Server
C. On the Policy Server
D. On the Smart View Monitor
E. On the primary SmartCenter Server
Answer: E

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NO.6 You set up a mesh VPN community, so your internal networks can access your
partner's network, and vice versa. Your Security Policy encrypts only FTP and
HTTP traffic through a VPN tunnel. All other traffic among your internal and
partner networks is sent in clear text. How do you configure the VPN community?
A. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic", and put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services
in the Community object. Add a rule in the Security Policy for services FTP and http,
with the Community object in the VPN field.
B. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic" in the Community, and add FTP and HTTP
services to the Security Policy, with that Community object in the VPN field.
C. Enable "accept all encrypted traffic", but put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services
in the Community. Add a rule in the Security Policy, with services FTP and http, and the
Community object in the VPN field.
D. Put FTP and HTTP in the Excluded services in the Community object. Then add a rule
in the Security Policy to allow Any as the service with the Community object in the VPN
field.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Exhibit:
The exhibit displays the cphaprob state command output from a New Mode High
Availability cluster member.
Which machine has the highest priority?
A. 192.168.1.2, since its number is 2.
B. 192.168.1.1, because its number is 1.
C. This output does not indicate which machine has the highest priority.
D. 192.168.1.2, because its stats is active
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-315 examen   certification 156-315

NO.8 You work a network administrator for KillTest .com. You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with
two rules: an H.323 rule with a weight of 10, and the Default
Rule with a weight of 10. The H.323 rule includes a per-connection guarantee of 384
Kbps, and a per-connection limit of 512 Kbps. The per-connection guarantee is for
four connections, and no additional connections are allowed in the Action
properties. If traffic passing through the QoS Module matches both rules, which of
the following is true?
A. Neither rule will be allocated more than 10% of available bandwidth.
B. The H.323 rule will consume no more than 2048 Kbps of available bandwidth.
C. 50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the H.323 rule.
D. 50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the Default Rule
E. Each H.323 connection will receive at least 512 Kbps of bandwidth.
Answer: B

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CA CAT-060 CAT-500 CAT-340 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CAT-060
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Nom d'Examen: CA (CA Process Automation r4.x Professional Exam)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CAT-340
Nom d'Examen: CA (CA IdentityMinder r12.x Professional Exam)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 Which tasks does Config Xpress enable you to perform? (Choose three)
A. Map dynamic connectors to endpoints.
B. Move components between environments.
C. Publish a report of thesystem components to a PDF file.
D. Publish the XML configuration fora particular component.
E. Create complex business logic withoutthe need to develop custom code.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 Which statement about installing Connector Xpress is TRUE?
A. It can be installed on a dedicated computer.
B. It must be installed on the Report Server computer.
C. It must be installed on the Provisioning Server computer.
D. It must be installed on the JavaConnector Server (JCS) computer.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You need to import a large number of managed users to the CA Identity Minder User Store
simultaneously.Having explored the various options, the Bulk Loader method seems the best option.
However, which limitation do you need to be aware of before you begin?
A. It may use large amounts of memory.
B. It cannotbe mapped to a workflow process.
C. It does not support the execution of identity policies.
D. It bypasses audit and security mechanisms provided by the Task Server.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In CA IdentityMinder r12.6, the basic access request feature:
A. is fully integrated with CA GovernanceMinder.
B. includes granular filtering and search capabilities.
C. enables bulk definition ofaccess request services objects.
D. can use workflow approval and email notification functionality.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When you configure the Report Server, which guideline should you follow?
A. Always restart the environment after you configure reporting.
B. Set all systems involved in reportingto the same time zone and time.
C. To avoid port conflicts with JBoss, change the default port numbers in the CRConfig.xml file.
D. Configure the connection with the Provisioning Server before you configure the connection with
the Snapshot Database.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which event context information object method returns the name of the person who
submitted the task that generated an event?
A. getOrgName()
B. getEventName()
C. getAdminName()
D. getPrimaryObjectName()
Answer: C

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NO.7 During Exchange Agent configuration, which step do you perform?
A. Install an Exchange server remote agent on the Provisioning Server.
B. Configure the CAM and CAFT Service to be started by the system account.
C. Configure inbound mappings to map Exchange events to CA IdentityMinder tasks.
D. Configure CAFTHOST to recognize the C++ Connector Server (CCS) and the CA IdentityMinder
clients.
Answer: D

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NO.8 When you export CA IdentityMinder environment settings, you generate a ZIP file containing
which files? (Choose three)
A. alias_environment.xml
B. alias_environment_roles.xml
C. alias_environment_users.xml
D. alias_environment_settings.xml
E. alias_environment_mappings.xml
Answer: A,B,D

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Dernières CA CAT-160 CAT-380 270-131 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CAT-160
Nom d'Examen: CA (CA SiteMinder r12 Administrator Exam)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CAT-380
Nom d'Examen: CA (CA ARCserve Backup r16.x Administrator Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 270-131
Nom d'Examen: CA (Certified Unicenter Specialist Administrator )
Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 Which assumption does CA SiteMinder make about a user directory by default.?
A. A user will be audited against the same directory.
B. A user will be authorized against the same directory.
C. A user will be authenticated against the same directory.
D. A user will be authenticated AND authorized against the same directory.
Answer: B

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NO.2 If you are an administrator, but not a superuser administrator, you can: (Choose two)
A. Create superuser administrators
B. Access CA SiteMinder objects, tools, and features
C. Change rules, policies, and responses in various domains
D. Instruct the Policy Server to set upa default administrator account
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Virtual user attributes are prefixed with:
A. !
B. /
C. #
D. @
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 9L0-064
Nom d'Examen: Apple (OS X v10.8 Troubleshooting Exam)
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 9L0-007
Nom d'Examen: Apple (Macintosh Service Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 9L0-406
Nom d'Examen: Apple (Mac Integration Basics Exam)
Questions et réponses: 45 Q&As

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NO.1 A MacBook sometimes becomes unresponsive and the cursor freezes on the display when running an
application. You have verified the symptom, and have already attempted to force the application to quit,
but the computer remains unresponsive. What should you try next?
A. Disconnect all power sources for several minutes to reset the SMC.
B. Hold the eject button down for several seconds to reset the application.
C. Hold the trackpad button down for several seconds to regain cursor control.
D. Press the power button for several seconds to try shutting the computer down.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A MacBook Pro powers on with no image on the built-in display. You connect an external display and
restart the MacBook Pro, yet you still see no image on either display. Which of the following is most likely
the cause of this symptom?
A. Dead battery
B. Not enough RAM
C. Faulty optical drive
D. RAM not completely seated
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which section of any Apple service manual is the BEST place to look for instructions for replacing an
internal component?
A. Views
B. Basics
C. Take Apart
D. Troubleshooting
Answer: C

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NO.4 The LED on a MacBook MagSafe power adapter doesn't illuminate at all when it's plugged into the
MacBook and you know the adapter is connected to a known good power source. What is most likely the
cause of this symptom?
A. The MacBook has a faulty main battery.
B. The MagSafe adapter needs to be reset first.
C. The MacBook requires an SMC firmware update.
D. A MagSafe adapter connector pin is stuck down.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the function of the SMC in an Intel Mac?
A. The SMC controls all aspects of power flow.
B. The SMC controls the speed of the hard drive.
C. The SMC manages the amount of virtual memory used.
D. The SMC manages all communication with attached peripherals.
Answer: A

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NO.6 To ensure proper fan and temperature control in the Power Mac G5, you must run the thermal
calibration routine found on the ______ disc whenever you replace a processor or logic board with a new
processor or logic board.
A. Apple Service Diagnostic
B. Apple Hardware Test
C. Fan Control Installer
D. Mac OS X Installer
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which TWO details are derived from entering an Apple product's serial number into the Apple Support
Web page? SELECT TWO
A. Mac OS version
B. Warranty status
C. AppleCare name
D. Installed memory
E. Number of USB ports
Answer: BC

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NO.8 You require additional information about a specific problem with a customer's Mac. Which one of the
following resources is the Apple-recommended choice for researching the problem?
A. Downloads
B. Discussions
C. User's manual
D. Knowledge Base
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HS330
Nom d'Examen: American College (Fundamentals of Estate Planning test)
Questions et réponses: 400 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is an example of a taxable gift for federal gift tax purposes?
A. A father gives his 19-year-old daughter a note promising to give her his Rolls Royce when she reaches
the age of 21.
B. Instead of parents paying an outside executive $60,000, a son runs their business for 8 months without
charging a fee.
C. The parents of a married son permit their son and his family to use a summer cottage that rents for
$3,000 per month on a rent-free basis.
D. A father cancels a $50,000 note his daughter gave him when he made a loan to her 2 years ago.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The interest rate for loans from the Federal Land Bank is 8 percent.
For federal estate tax purposes, the farm method valuation formula would result in a current use value for
the farm of
A. $500,000
B. $600,000
C. $700,000
D. $820,000
Answer: B

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5. Which of the following types of real property ownership will be deemed to be a tenancy in common?
A. Two brothers own equal amounts of all the common stock in a corporation, the only asset of which is
real property.
B. Two brothers own equal undivided interests in a piece of real property, with each brother being able to
divest himself of his interest by sale, gift, or will.
C. Two brothers are equal partners in a general partnership that owns a piece of real property used in the
partnership business.
D. Two brothers own equal fractional interests in a piece of real property and at the death of one of the
brothers the survivor will own the entire piece of property.
Answer: B

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6. Which of the following statements concerning property ownership by a married couple residing in a
community-property state is correct?
A. All property owned by the couple is community property.
B. Community property loses its identity when a couple moves from a community-property state to a
common-law state.
C. Property inherited by one spouse during a marriage becomes community property.
D. Income earned by one spouse becomes community property.
Answer: D

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7. Which of the following statements concerning a simple trust is correct?
A. Income and principal may be distributed to a qualified charity.
B. It receives a special tax deduction for income distributed to its beneficiaries.
C. Income is accumulated at the discretion of the trustee.
D. It limits the number of permissible beneficiaries.
Answer: B

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8. On the advice of their attorney and accountant, Betsy and John have decided to make substantial
transfers. They would like to pass most of their considerable wealth to their grandchildren. Which of the
following statements concerning gifts made to their grandchildren is correct?
A. The GSTT annual exclusion may be utilized by Betsy and John for each grandchild during lifetime and
at death.
B. The value of Betsy and John's GSTT exemption amounts are slightly increased when used at death
rather than during lifetime.
C. The GSTT annual exclusion is unavailable for years in which Betsy and John make tuition gifts for the
grandchildren.
D. Betsy and John may elect to split any GSTT transfers to the grandchildren.
Answer: D

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9.The decedent, D, died this year. The facts concerning D estate are:
On January 1, 2004 a father gave his daughter a $200,000 straight (ordinary) life insurance policy on his
life.
Premiums are paid annually. The pertinent facts about the policy are:
Date of issue: July 1, 1992
Premium paid on July 1, 2003 $3,200
Gross estate $3,400,000
Marital deduction 0
Charitable deduction 600,000
Funeral & administration
expenses
80,000
Gifts made after 1976 170,000
State death taxes payable 192,000
What is D taxable estate?
A. $2,138,000
B. $2,358,000
C. $2,528,000
D. $2,720,000
Answer: C

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10.Terminal reserve on July 1, 2003 20,000 Terminal reserve on July 1, 2004 24,000 What is the value of
the policy for federal gift tax purposes?
A. $ 21,600
B. $ 23,200
C. $ 23,600
D. $200,000
Answer: C

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11. A married man has two adult sons. His entire estate is in excess of $1,500,000 and consists entirely of
probate assets. He wants to make certain that if he predeceases his wife she will receive all estate
income as long as she lives, and the assets remaining at her death will pass equally to their two sons. He
wants to pass all assets to this wife and sons as free of federal estate taxes as possible. To best
accomplish these objectives, the man should include which of the following estate plans in his will?
A. Establish a QTIP trust for half his estate and bequeath the remainder to his wife
B. Establish a marital deduction trust with a general power of appointment for half his estate and place the
remainder in a QTIP trust
C. Establish a bypass trust equal to the applicable exclusion amount and place the remainder of his
estate in a QTIP trust
D. Establish a QTIP trust for his entire estate
Answer: C

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12. Among the assets in a decedent's gross estate is stock in a closely held corporation that was left to a
nephew. The interest passing to the nephew is required to bear the burden of all estate taxes and
expenses. The relevant facts about this
estate are:
Adjusted gross estate $1,200,000
Fair market value of stock in the
closely held corporation 500,000
Administration and funeral
expenses
25,000
State inheritance taxes 40,000
Federal estate taxes 160,000
What amount of closely held corporate stock may be redeemed under IRC Section 303 so that the
redemption will be treated as a sale or exchange rather than a dividend distribution?
A. 0
B. $ 65,000
C. $225,000
D. $500,000
Answer: C

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13. A married man died this year leaving a gross estate of $3,200,000. Additional facts concerning his
estate are: Administration expenses and debts $ 250,000 Marital deduction 1,200,000 Applicable credit
amount (2005) 555,800 Applicable exclusion amount (2005) 1,500,000 State death taxes payable 20,400
Under the Unified Rate Schedule for computing estate taxes if the amount with respect to which the
tentative tax to be computed is over $1,000,000 but not over $1,250,000, the tentative tax is $345,800,
plus 41 percent of the excess of such amount over $1,000,000. If the amount is over $1,250,000 but not
over $1,500,000, the tentative tax is then $448,300, plus 43 percent of the excess of such amount over
$1,250,000. If the amount is over $1,500,000 but not over $2,000,000, the tentative tax is then $555,800
plus 45% of the excess of such amount over $1,500,000. Based on these facts, the net federal estate tax
payable is
A. 0
B. $103,320
C. $123,720
D. $128,280
Answer: B

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14. Which of the following statements concerning both estates and complex trusts is correct?
A. Both must have more than one beneficiary.
B. Both come into being by operation of law.
C. Both are monitored by the courts.
D. Both are required to file income tax returns.
Answer: D

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15. A widow made the following cash gifts during the current year: Donee Amount of Gift
A qualified charity $40,000
A close friend 30,000
Her sister 5,000
Her daughter 15,000
Her brother 10,000
The total amount of the taxable gifts made this year was
A. $23,000
B. $45,000
C. $52,000
D. $95,000
Answer:A

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16. A man is planning to establish and fund a 20-year irrevocable trust for the benefit of his two sons,
aged 19 and 22, and plans to give the trustee power to sprinkle trust income. From the standpoint of
providing federal income, gift, and estate tax savings, which of the following would be the best choice of
trustee?
A. The grantor of the trust
B. The grantor's 70-year-old father
C. The grantor's 22-year-old son
D. A bank or trust company
Answer: D

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17. A man died in February of this year. Last year, when he learned that he had a terminal illness, he
immediately made the following gifts and filed the required gift tax return:
Fair Market Value
Gift of listed stock to a
qualified charity $100,000
Gift of listed bonds to his wife 200,000
Gift of a boat to his son 10,000
Gift of a sports car to his daughter
10,000
What amount must be brought back to the man's estate as an adjusted taxable gift in the calculation of his
federal estate taxes?
A. 0
B. $ 90,000
C. $280,000
D. $320,000
Answer:A

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18. A widower dies leaving a net probate estate of $300,000. At the time of his death, his descendants are
as follows:
A son, Joe, who has no children;
A deceased daughter, Mary, whose two children, Irene and Sally, survive; and
A daughter, Anne, who has one child, Harry
Assuming that the widower's will provides for the distribution of his assets in equal shares to his children,
per stirpes,
which of the following correctly states the amounts each descendant will receive?
A. $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, and $100,000 to Anne
B. $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, $50,000 to Anne, and $50,000 to Harry
C. $75,000 to Joe, $75,000 to Irene, $75,000 to Sally, and $75,000 to Anne
D. $60,000 to Joe, $60,000 to Irene, $60,000 to Sally, $60,000 to Anne, and $60,000 to Harry
Answer:A

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19. Which of the following areas of consideration present common ethical issues for the estate planner?
A. Contracts
B. Compatibility
C. Consistency
D. Compensation
Answer: D

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20. A father deeded a house as a gift to his daughter in 1990 but retained the right to live in it until his
death. He died this
year, while still living in the house. The following are relevant facts:
The father bought the property in 1980 for $140,000. The fair market value of the property when the gift
was made in
1990 was $170,000. The father filed a timely gift tax return but paid no gift tax because of the applicable
credit amount.
The fair market value of the property at the father's death was $200,000. The daughter sold the property 3
months after
her father's death for $200,000. She had a gain of
A. 0
B. $130,000
C. $160,000
D. $200,000
Answer:A

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NO.3 The following are facts concerning a decedent's estate:
An executor elects to value the assets of the estate at the alternative valuation date 6 months after death.
Which of the following statements concerning the estate tax value of assets included in this estate is
correct?
Taxable estate $1,700,000
Pre-1977 taxable gifts 200,000
Post-1976 adjusted taxable gifts 50,000
Post-1976 gifts made to a qualified
charity
100,000
The tentative tax base of this estate is
A. $1,700,000
B. $1,750,000
C. $1,850,000
D. $1,900,000
Answer: B

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A. An annuity included in the gross estate that diminishes with the mere passage of time is includible at
the date of death value.
B. Property sold before the alternate valuation date is valued at the alternate valuation date.
C. Property that has increased in value since the date of death may be valued at the date of death if the
executor so elects.
D. Property distributed under the will before the alternate valuation date is valued at the date of death.
Answer:A

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4. A father and son have been farming land owned by the father for the past 12 years. Just prior to his
death, the father was offered $1,200,000 for his farm because of its possible use as a shopping center.
The son would like to continue to farm the land if it can be included in his father's estate at its current use
value. Additional facts are:
1.Average annual gross rentals from nearby farms of similar acreage are $56,000.
2.Average annual state and local real estate taxes on the farm are $8,000.

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Code d'Examen: A30-327
Nom d'Examen: AccessData (AccessData Certified Examiner)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 When previewing a physical drive on a local machine with FTK Imager, which statement is true?
A.FTK Imager can block calls to interrupt 13h and prevent writes to suspect media.
B.FTK Imager can operate from a USB drive, thus preventing writes to suspect media.
C.FTK Imager can operate via a DOS boot disk, thus preventing writes to suspect media.
D.FTK Imager should always be used in conjunction with a hardware write protect device to prevent
writes to suspect media.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which three items are displayed in FTK Imager for an individual file in the Properties window? (Choose
three.)
A.flags
B.filename
C.hash set
D.timestamps
E.item number
Answer: ABD

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NO.3 In FTK, which search broadening option allows you to find grammatical variations of the word "kill" such
as "killer," "killed," and "killing"?
A.Phonic
B.Synonym
C.Stemming
D.Fuzzy Logic
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which type of evidence can be added to FTK Imager?
A.individual files
B.all checked items
C.contents of a folder
D.all currently listed items
Answer: C

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NO.5 When using FTK Imager to preview a physical drive, which number is assigned to the first logical
volume of an extended partition?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
Answer: D

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