HP0-Y21 dernières questions d'examen certification HP et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y21
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Core Competencies)
Questions et réponses: 79 Q&As

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NO.1 You must configure a ProCurve switch to help protect a customer network from malicious users who
might attempt to exhaust the address pool of the company's DHCP server. Which ProCurve feature will
help to address this vulnerability?
A. DHCP snooping
B. Dynamic ARP protection
C. built-in DHCP server
D. DHCP relay
Answer: A

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NO.2 At a customer site, a network technician notices that a device deleted from the Navigation Pane in
ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) reappears after two days. How can the technician prevent this behavior?
A. Disable LLDP on the device.
B. Delete the device's subnet from the Managed Subnets list.
C. Configure PCM+ discovery options to ignore the device's VLAN.
D. Add the device to the Excluded Devices list.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the effect of the following command issued at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
ProCurve Switch 5406zl# configure terminal
A. The CLI moves to the global configuration context.
B. The CLI echoes user input to the terminal.
C. The CLI displays current configuration parameters.
D. The CLI provides an interface for configuring terminal variables such as line length.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which configuration and monitoring interfaces are available when you access a ProCurve switch
through Telnet? (Select two.)
A. menu interface
B. ProCurve Manager
C. command line interface
D. boot monitor interface
E. web interface
Answer: AC

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NO.5 A ProCurve Switch 8212zl must be configured to be the ABR for OSPF areas 0 and 5. While
implementing this configuration, you enter the following command at the switch's CLI:
8212.l(ospf)#area 5 stub 2 no-summary
How will this affect the route tables of other routers in area 5?
A. Only directly connected routes will be listed.
B. Every route known to the 8212zl will be listed with a separate gateway and cost.
C. The only OSPF route will be the interface with the 8212zl.
D. All networks outside area 5 will be summarized as a default route.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Port a1 on a ProCurve Switch 5406zl is a tagged member of VLAN 20. Which devices can
communicate through this port? (Select two.)
A. a port on another switch that is a tagged member of VLAN 20
B. a port on another switch that is an untagged member of VLAN 20
C. an end station that cannot insert or remove 802.1Q tags
D. a port on another switch that cannot insert or remove 802.1Q tags
E. an 802.1Q-compliant end station that is a member of VLAN 20
Answer: AE

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NO.7 You configured untagged port members of VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl.
Additionally, you assigned IP addresses to interfaces in both VLANs. While testing the configuration, you
discover that nodes in the two VLANs cannot ping each other. The nodes are configured correctly and
connected to the correct ports.
What must be done on the 8212zl to enable communication between the nodes?
A. Disable ICMP blocking.
B. Enable IP routing.
C. Add connected ports to both VLANs.
D. Define a default gateway.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which ports configured on a ProCurve switch are equivalent to the access ports on a Cisco Systems
switch?
A. edge ports
B. LAG ports
C. untagged ports
D. tagged ports
Answer: C

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NO.9 You must specify network management parameters for ProCurve switches scheduled to be installed
at a customer site. Which two features are offered by SNMPv3, but are not offered by SNMPv1 or
SNMPv2c? (Select two.)
A. configurable trap receiver ports
B. TCP-based message flow control
C. access control based on IP address or DNS name
D. encrypted communications
E. access restrictions based on user identity
Answer: DE

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NO.10 Which command, entered at the CLI of a ProCurve switch, saves the switch's running configuration to
its startup configuration?
A. write config
B. save startup-config
C. write memory
D. save running-config
E. copy running-config startup-config
Answer: C

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NO.11 while installing ProCurve Manager Server, you specify 192.168.1.1 as the "Start from device." This
device is a ProCurve Switch 5406zl with IP routing and RIP enabled. The switch has interfaces in four IP
networks, including 192.168.1.0/24.
Which step must be taken to enable ProCurve Manager to discover devices in networks other than
192.168.1.0/24?
A. Perform a Manual Discovery for each VLAN configured on the 5406zl.
B. Import the subnet address ranges from the 5406zl routing table.
C. Configure ProCurve Manager to receive SNMP traps from devices in the networks.
D. Add the other networks to the Managed Subnets list in Discovery Preferences.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which authentication methods are supported by the SSH service on ProCurve switches? (Select
three.)
A. MAC-Auth
B. 802.1X
C. Kerberos
D. local user name and password
E. public key
F. RADIUS
Answer: DEF

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NO.13 Which VLAN configuration parameters must be reviewed when a network user group relocates to an
office facility with a new network setup? (Select two.)
A. VLAN membership for other workstations in the group's new facility
B. VLAN membership for the switch ports that will provide connectivity for the group's workstations
C. IP addressing for the default VLAN on the switch that will provide connectivity for the group's
workstations
D. VLAN membership for the uplink port on the switch that will provide connectivity between the group
and resources connected to other switches
E. VLAN membership of the default gateway on the switch that will provide connectivity for the group's
workstations
Answer: BD

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NO.14 Which steps are necessary before enabling SSL on a ProCurve switch? (Select two.)
A. Generate an HTTPS client certificate.
B. Import a certificate from a Certificate Authority.
C. Generate a self-signed server certificate.
D. Disable unencrypted Web-based management.
E. Generate public and private keys.
Answer: CE

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NO.15 In ProCurve Manager Plus, which user type can configure and manage network devices but cannot
add, delete, or modify user accounts?
A. operator
B. viewer
C. manager
D. administrator
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which statement is correct about the discovery features of ProCurve Manager (PCM) with ProCurve
Manager Plus (PCM+)?
A. PCM+ enables the scheduling of auto-discovery; PCM requires users to initiate discovery manually.
B. PCM+ and PCM use identical discovery processes.
C. PCM+ supports discovery based on LLDP, CDP and FDP; PCM supports discovery based only on
CDP and FDP.
D. PCM+ will discover devices from manufacturers other than HP; PCM will only discover ProCurve
devices.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which methods are used by ProCurve Manager Plus to discover manageable devices? (Select three.)
A. scans TCP ports
B. pings to detect replies
C. scans for ProCurve SNMP identifiers
D. reads ARP table
E. tests for Telnet access
F. listens for LLDP messages
Answer: BDF

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NO.18 Which privilege level is indicated by this prompt in the CLI of a ProCurve switch?
Switch_1A#
A. manager
B. operator
C. global configuration
D. viewer
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which methods can be used to update the ProCurve Switch 5412zl software using the CLI? (Select
two.)
A. FTP over IP connection
B. TFTP over serial port connection
C. direct serial port transfer
D. TFTP over IP connection
E. SNMPv3 transfer over IP connection
Answer: CD

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NO.20 What is the default username and password for the ProCurve Manager Management Server?
A. username: Manager
password: password
B. username: Administrator
password: admin
C. username: Manager
password: value configured during installation
D. username: Administrator
password: value configured during installation
E. username: value configured during installation
password: value configured during installation
Answer: D

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NO.21 What is the effect of issuing the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
ProCurve Switch 5400zl(config)# include-credentials
A. Management passwords and user names will be displayed in the running configuration.
B. Local management user names and passwords will be stored on the configured RADIUS server.
C. The switch will send and require authentication information for all SNMP communications.
D. User names and passwords will be required for all management access.
Answer: A

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NO.22 You must configure password protection for read/write access to the CLI of a ProCurve switch. Which
command is necessary to complete this task?
A. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password operator
B. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password manager
C. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password administrator
D. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password port-access
Answer: B

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NO.23 while installing ProCurve Manager Server, you specify 192.168.1.1 as the "Start from device." This
device is a ProCurve Switch 5406zl with IP routing and RIP enabled. The switch has interfaces in four IP
networks, including 192.168.1.0/24.
Which ProCurve devices will be automatically discovered by ProCurve Manager?
A. devices in the 5406zl LLDP neighbor table
B. devices in the 192.168.1.0/24 network
C. devices in all networks in the 5406zl route table
D. devices in all networks directly connected to the 5406zl
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which ProCurve Manager wizard simplifies the task of changing the SNTP server IP address
parameter on 50 ProCurve 5406zl switches?
A. CLI Wizard
B. Switch Update Wizard
C. Configuration Wizard
D. IP Networking Wizard
E. Network Services Wizard
Answer: A

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NO.25 You must enable IP routing at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 3500yl, but can remember only that the
command begins with "ip." Which command provides context-sensitive help?
A. 3500yl# ip[ENTER]
B. 3500yl# ip/?[ENTER]
C. 3500yl# help ip[ENTER]
D. 3500yl# ip?[ENTER]
E. 3500yl# ip[TAB]
Answer: E

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NO.26 What is the effect of entering the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
5406zl(vlan-100)#interface a1
A. Port A1 is enabled.
B. The CLI enters the configuration context for port A1.
C. Port A1 becomes a tagged member of VLAN 100.
D. The CLI displays the status of port A1.
Answer: B

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NO.27 Click the Exhibit button.
Which command enables the ProCurve Switch 3500yl-24G to execute the config2 configuration file
shown in the exhibit?
A. erase config1
B. copy config2 flash primary
C. config active config2
D. boot system flash secondary
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which statement is correct about the support for LLDP offered by ProCurve switches?
A. The LLDP neighbors table contains the system names and MAC addresses of neighbors.
B. LLDP is a reciprocal protocol that provides acknowledgement for each packet transmitted.
C. LLDP is globally disabled by default to avoid any performance impact.
D. When routing is enabled, LLDP is automatically disabled because LLDP messages cannot be
transmitted over routed interfaces.
Answer: A

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NO.29 You must define a hostname on a ProCurve Switch 5406zl. Which configuration context must you enter
to perform this task?
A. manager
B. interface configuration
C. operator
D. global configuration
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which features are available in ProCurve Manager Plus, but not in ProCurve Manager? (Select two.)
A. alerts notification
B. automatic discovery
C. network topology mapping
D. scheduled software updates
E. CLI device management
F. traffic analysis
Answer: DF

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J23
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing MSA Storage Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

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NO.1 Which technologies are used to transmit data over IP networks? (Select two.)
A.FC-over-ATM
B.iSCSI
C.FC-IP
D.ESCON
E.FICON
ANSWER: AE

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NO.2 Which action is performed by MultiPath I/O if the Device Specific Module (DSM) returns
an inactive path to the system?
A.The automatic load balancing policy is disabled.
B.Load balancing policy is reduced by this path.
C.A path failover is initiated.
D.The inactive path is verified again.
ty
ANSWER: C

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NO.3 Which component enables access to block storage on a Fibre Channel SAN across an
Ethernet network?
A.Fibre Channel Switch
B.Ethernet Switch
C.iSCSI to Fibre Channel bridge
D.FC-IP gateway connector
ANSWER: C

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NO.4 Your customer wants to share data among many servers in their LAN.
Which storage solution is most suitable for this customer?
A.Network Attached Storage
B.Internet SCSI
C.Storage Area Network
D.Fibre Channel over IP
ANSWER: A

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NO.5 Click the Task button. Click on the area where a post configuration successful (green) message would
appear.
Answer:

NO.6 You are specifying a storage solution for your customer, but the customer has limited skills to configure
the solution. The MSA2012fc has a new feature called Automatic Virtual Disk Creation which will help the
customer configure the array.
What must you ensure when specifying the solution?
A.Only one type of disk (SAS or SATA) is specified.
B.Only SAS drives are specified.
C.The solution is a dual controller solution.
D.A minimum of two disk enclosures is connected.
ANSWER: A

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NO.7 How many volume copies and snapshots are supported when using an MSA2012i storage array?
A.64 volume copies and 64 snapshots
B.64 volume copies and 128 snapshots
C.128 volume copies and 64 snapshots
D.128 volume copies and 128 snapshots
ANSWER: C

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NO.8 What is the Recovery Point Objective?
A.the amount of data that must be recovered
B.the amount of time the restoration takes for all data
C.the amount of data you can afford to lose
D.the amount of time you can afford to be without the data
ANSWER: C

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NO.9 What are benefits of storage consolidation to a customer? (Select two.)
A.regular, mandatory maintenance hours
B.more efficient storage growth
C.higher availability through decentralized storage pools
D.better disk capacity utilization than DAS
E.eliminates the need for a backup
ANSWER: CE

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NO.10 What are key features of the MSA2012i? (Select three.)
A.support for up to 64 hosts
B.controller-based replication capability
C.support for up to 16 servers
D.snapshot and clone capability
E.automated active/passive failover
F.hardware active/active failover
ANSWER: CDF

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NO.11 Where is the MSA Storage Management Utility web server located?
A.on each of MSA controller modules
B.on the master MSA controller module
C.on the SAN management server
D.on any server connected to the SAN
ANSWER: A

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NO.12 Which data backup features are introduced as part of a SAN? (Select three.)
A.reduction of congestion
B.elimination of single point of failure
C.elimination of database downtime for backup
D.efficient utilization of storage resources
E.reduction of power outage risk in the storage network
F.improvements of backup window
ANSWER: BCE

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NO.13 Which disk drive technology is best suited to sequential-access data and secondary storage
applications within an MSA2000 Family array system?
A.SCSI
B.SAS
C.FATA
D.SATA
E.FC SCSI
ANSWER: D

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NO.14 How does the Storage Management Utility distinguish users while they are connected to an MSA2000
Family Modular Smart Array controller?
A.by name of the connected user
B.by IP address of the connected client
C.by WWN of the management host
D.by certificate issued by the Storage Management Utility
ANSWER: B

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NO.15 What is the maximum number of hosts that can be connected to an MSA2012fc?
A.16
B.32
C.64
D.128
ANSWER: C

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
Which function does a Network Storage Router (NSR) provide?
A.backup accelerator for 2Gb SANs
B.two-stage backup capabilities for SAN environments
C.Fibre Channel-to-SCSI bridge
D.data encryption to the tape device
ANSWER: C

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NO.17 What is a Recovery Time Objective?
A.maximum duration of data restore per system
B.maximum acceptable time interval for business data unavailability
C.maximum time frame for restoring data of all systems
D.maximum time frame for data loss in case of failure
ANSWER: B

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NO.18 What are high availability features of a SAN? (Select two.)
A.online storage migration
B.backup multiplexing
C.dynamic failover protection
D.LAN-free backup
E.storage server clustering
ANSWER: CE

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NO.19 How many ports are available on an HP StorageWorks 4/32 SAN switch base system?
A.12
B.16
C.20
D.28
ANSWER: B

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NO.20 Which physical or logical storage components can be managed using the HP StorageWorks MSA2000
Family Storage Management Utility? (Select three.)
A.virtual disks
B.disk groups
C.replication groups
D.pre-fetch cache
E.master volumes
F.drive modules
ANSWER: AEF

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S15
Nom d'Examen: HP (Planning and Designing ProLiant Solutions for the Enterprise)
Questions et réponses: 135 Q&As

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NO.1 When looking into HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM), an administrator detects an issue
with a c-Class server blade. However, in the Onboard Administrator, everything looks fine. What
could be the reason?
A.The Onboard Administrator is running in a different VLAN than the HP SIM server.
B.The c-Class server blades are running an older version of the HP management agents.
C.The Onboard Administrator status does not include information from the agents running on the blades.
D.The management link between the c-Class server blades and the Onboard Administrator is not
configured.
Correct:C

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NO.2 What is the recommended method of configuring the access security control between HP
Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) and the System Management Homepage (SMH)?
A.configure trust by name in HP SIM
B.configure trust by certificate in the SMH
C.import the SSH private key generated by HP SIM into SMH
D.synchronize the password files between SMH and HP SIM
Correct:B

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NO.3 Which HP SAN design is recommended for anyone just starting with SAN technology?
A.HP standard design
B.variation of an HP standard design
C.flexible design using HP standard design
D.custom design using HP StorageWorks SAN design rules
Correct:A

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NO.4 Which tool gives you an intuitive and secure interface to review in-depth information on
hardware configuration, performance metrics and system thresholds and is part of the ProLiant
Support Pack?
A.HP Control Tower
B.HP System Management Homepage
C.HP Performance Management agents
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
Correct:B

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NO.5 Which feature in Intelligent Networking Pack (INP) allows the creation of groups inside a single
team, where each group is assigned one or more teamed ports?
A.fast path failover
B.router path failover
C.dual channel teaming
D.dual channel load balancing
Correct:C

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NO.6 Which layer-two protocol provides neighbor device discovery and runs on all networking
devices such as routers, bridges and switches?
A.Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
B.Transmit Control Protocol (TCP)
C.Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
D.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Correct:A

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NO.7 What can be imported into the System Management Homepage to increase security?
A.local server certificate
B.encrypted password file
C.Secure Shell (SSH) public key
D.128bit RC4 encryption license
Correct:A

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NO.8 What integrates with the System Management Homepage to enable network administrators to
maintain detailed server inventory and track historical configuration changes?
A.Version Control Agents (VCA)
B.HP Insight Diagnostics Online
C.Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
D.Open Services Event Manager (OSEM)
Correct:B

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NO.9 What benefit is provided from a fault-tolerant system?
A.99.99% availability
B.maximum availability regardless of the circumstances
C.clustering with failover processes and application monitoring
D.component level redundancy, with a limited percentage of downtime
Correct:B

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NO.10 E-commerce sites are an example of which implementation?
A.mission-critical application
B.business-critical application
C.continuous effort application
D.disaster-recovery application
Correct:B

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NO.11 What is used by Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) to improve security? (Select two.)
A.XML scripting
B.Secure Shell (SSH)
C.Virtual password store
D.Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
E.Secure Task Execution (STE)
Correct:B D

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NO.12 When configuring the authorizations for the System Management Homepage (SMH) on a Linux
server, what should the system manager do to allow access for the root user?
A.Create a password for root in SMH.
B.Add root to the administrators group in SMH.
C.Import the password file from Linux into SMH.
D.Enter the root username and password to log into SMH.
Correct:D

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NO.13 What is downloaded from an HP website when updating the patch database used by
Vulnerability and Patch Management (VPM)?
A.updated VPM software, if available
B.latest patches from different vendors
C.latest vulnerability scan definition files
D.newer version of the Radia patch agent, if available
Correct:C

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NO.14 Which management protocol is used by the Onboard Administrator for BladeSystem c-Class to
send event notifications for thresholds and faults to HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)?
A.eXtended Management Layer (XML) protocol
B.Web-based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
C.Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)
D.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Correct:D

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NO.15 What is used to secure access to the System Management Homepage? (Select two.)
A.IP restriction
B.Secure Shell (SSH)
C.web-based secured login
D.SNMP community names
E.multiple login authentications
Correct:A C

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NO.16 Which application requires 100% uptime, where unavailability can have catastrophic business
impact?
A.mission-critical application
B.business-critical application
C.continuous effort application
D.disaster-recovery application
Correct:A

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NO.17 The following questions are asked during which part of the planning cycle? What is the
expected availability of the new solution? What is the projected role of the new server? What kind
of system management tools are required?
A.site survey
B.scope of work
C.needs analysis
D.implementation timeline
Correct:C

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NO.18 What is one of the primary responsibilities of Integrated Lights-Out (iLO) in the server blade
p-class architecture?
A.Control the distribution of virtual IP-addresses and link them to the physical MAC addresses.
B.Control and regulate access to the power management module when using the RS-232 connection
method.
C.Monitor and control the communication on the network bus used by the power and enclosure
management module.
D.Assist in managing power resources by acting as an intelligent interface to the server blade
infrastructure and its power management module.
Correct:D

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NO.19 What action does HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) take when a blade server is identified
through another system in the same rack or enclosure?
A.The system is catalogued to be polled during the next discovery task
B.Associations are made between the blade server operating system to the next blade server operating
system using the Interconnect ID.
C.Associations are made between the iLO and the enclosure in which the system resides.
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) requests all relevant information about the blade server to the
HP BladeSystem Integrated Manager.
Correct:C

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NO.20 What do you need to access the Onboard Administrator for a BladeSystem c-Class enclosure
remotely? (Select two.)
A.a standard USB cable
B.an RS-232 serial cable
C.a compatible web browser
D.a terminal emulation program
E.the Onboard Administrator IP address
Correct:C E

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M21
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Universal Configuration Management Database Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 136 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the correct statement with regard to "Filter Related in DB"?
A. Displays the related CIs from the current view
B. Displays the related CIs from the entire CMDB
C. Displays specific types of related CIs from the current view
D. Displays specific types of related CIs from the entire CMDB
Answer: D

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NO.2 What pattern is used for discovering IP's?
A. ICMP
B. WMI
C. SNMP
D. JMX
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the "Refresh View" menu item used for?
A. to update the information in the IT Universe Manager
B. to update the information in the view explorer
C. to rebuild the view
D. to refresh the browser
Answer: B

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NO.4 What information do patterns store?
A. CIs and relationships to be created, Discovery Protocols, Parameters and scripts
B. Destination list and Protocols and triggered CIs
C. Only credentials
D. Scripts and UCMDB connection
Answer: A

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NO.5 How do you navigate between layers?
A. by double-clicking on the Related in View in Related CIs tab
B. by double-clicking on the Navigation button in the menu bar
C. by selecting a layout from the Layout menu in the menu bar
D. by double-clicking on the down arrow and the green up arrow
Answer: D

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NO.6 Where would you edit the attribute value of a CI?
A. on the Related CIs page of IT Universe Manager
B. on the Topology Map page of IT Universe Manager
C. on the Properties page of IT Universe Manager
D. on the Properties page of View Manager
Answer: C

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NO.7 When are view parameters created?
A. when the TQL is created
B. when the view is created
C. when the TQL is calculated
D. when the view is calculated
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is a script used for?
A. It is a part of the pattern and contains the connection code to connect to infrastructure resources and
request information
B. It is used for the TQL for triggered list
C. It is used for the TQL command lines
D. It is the code used for finding the result in the uCMDB
Answer: A

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NO.9 What would you see in a Topology map if you set the "Number of Hops" to 4?
A. CIs that may be traced back to the selected CI by four or fewer links
B. CIs that are directly related to the selected CI
C. CIs that may be traced back to the selected CI by four or more links
D. CIs that may be traced back to the selected CI by three or fewer links
Answer: A

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NO.10 What types of information can be derived using Discovery?
A. Config files, reading records from another system, looking at network data
B. Config files ,OS and DB tables C. All network device
D. All In-house and network software and hardware
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which is not part of a package?
A. Class definitions (XML)
B. TQL and Views
C. Reports, Correlations and Enrichments
D. Protocols and credentials
Answer: D

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NO.12 What protocol(s) are used to discover J2EE environments?
A. JMX
B. JDBC and WMI
C. SNMP or WMI
D. JMX and ICMP
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the domain scope?
A. A set of IP Addresses that contains credential information
B. All the IPs that the probe can access to
C. The Probe's IP
D. The User's network Domain
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which three components comprise a discovery task?
A. User, server and pattern
B. Server, DB and probe
C. Pattern, script and credentials
D. DB, pattern and protocol
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is a topology map?
A. a manager used to create and organize views
B. a graphical representation of a subset of the CMDB
C. the editing pane where views are created
D. a list representation of a subset of the CMDB
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is the "View Sublayer" context menu used for?
A. to include the CI Type instances and instances of all subtypes in the view
B. to attach new related CI
C. to view child CIs without navigating away from the present layer
D. to view parent CIs without navigating away from the present layer
Answer: C

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NO.17 How many sets of credential per protocol are allowed?
A. Only one
B. Many
C. At least one
D. Maximum two
Answer: B

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NO.18 You navigate to the topology map and notice that there are no labels to the CIs. What might be the
reason for this?
A. The Map overview option is selected.
B. The Hide All Relationship option is selected.
C. The Hide All Node Labels option is selected.
D. The Hide All Relationship Labels option is selected.
Answer: C

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NO.19 You want to add a new CI to the view in the Topology View. Which are the possible actions you may
take?
A. Insert CI and Insert View
B. Insert View and Insert Related CI
C. Insert CI and Insert Related CI D. Insert View only
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which layer(s) does Discovery support or extract information from?
A. Layers 2 through 7
B. Only layers 2 and 7
C. Layer 7 only (application)
D. Layers 2,5 and 7
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y16
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Network Immunity Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

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NO.1 What might indicate that the sensitivity for IP fanout has been set too high?
A. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for almost every switch.
B. Although you do not see IP Fanout events, the IP Fanout alert triggers.
C. IP Fanout events appear in the Events tab for one switch but not others.
D. There are no IP Fanout events for days although you have configured an IP Fanout alert.
Answer: A

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NO.2 How does a ProCurve Network Immunity Solution protect a network?
A. It deals with threats from authorized users.
B. It stops unauthorized users from connecting.
C. It customizes users' rights based on their identity.
D. It filters Web content and email while searching for viruses.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a reason to create a custom group for a server zone and set that group as the source for a NIM
policy?
A. Servers handle more mission-critical traffic, so you set less drastic actions.
B. Servers trigger more false positives, so you set the NBAD sensitivities lower.
C. Threats are targeted to servers at all times, so you set the policy to any time.
D. Threats that are targeted to servers are more serious, so you set harsher actions.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which tab is added to PCM+ when you install ProCurve NIM?
A. Policy Events
B. Security Audit
C. Event Browser
D. Security Activity
Answer: D

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NO.5 How does ProCurve NIM determine the severity level for a security alert?
A. from the violation count for the associated event
B. from the event, and the severity cannot be overridden
C. from the event, unless overridden by the alert configuration
D. from the event for trap events and from the alert configuration for other events
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement is true about the role that events play in ProCurve NIM?
A. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding alert.
B. When a particular event occurs, ProCurve NIM executes the corresponding policy.
C. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding alert.
D. When a particular number of events occur within a set time window, ProCurve NIM triggers the
corresponding policy.
Answer: C

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NO.7 ProCurve NIM was registering few TCP/UDP Fanout events. You have raised the sensitivity, and
many false positive TCP/UDP Fanout events are now triggered throughout the network. What should you
do next? (Select two.)
A. Lower the sensitivity to the previous level.
B. Remove the TCP/UDP alert from all policies.
C. Plan and create a Policy Manager policy to deal with false positive events.
D. Exclude the devices triggering the false positive events from the TCP/UDP fanout.
Answer: AD

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NO.8 You want to set up different external alerts based on the specific type of threat. Which settings can
help you accomplish this task? (Select two.)
A. Trap ID
B. Severity
C. Description
D. Anomaly ID
E. Violation Count
Answer: AC

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NO.9 Which statement is true about setting up an action for dynamic remote mirroring?
A. You should configure the mirror source before configuring the action.
B. You should configure the mirror destination before configuring the action.
C. You configure both the mirror source and destination as part of configuring the action.
D. You should configure both the mirror source and destination before configuring the action.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which threat mitigation action is supported on ProCurve wireless devices?
A. Port Disable
B. MAC Lockout
C. Port Rate Limit
D. Quarantine VLAN
Answer: B

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NO.11 From which NBAD event should you often exclude your servers?
A. DNS Tunneling
B. TCP/UDP Fanout
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: B

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
Which port in the exhibit should you select in PCM+ and configure as the mirror destination?
A. 1
B. A6
C. X0
D. B16
E. 25-48
Answer: B

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NO.13 What must you do to configure a Port Rate Limit action?
A. Set the rate limit as a percentage.
B. Set the rate limit as a QoS priority value.
C. Set the rate limit as an absolute value in Kbps.
D. Enable the limit, leaving the rate to be determined by the switch configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.14 You want to display and print a list of all events related to the Policy Manager. What should you do?
A. From the Reports menu, select the Policy Events report.
B. In Interconnect Devices, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
C. From the Reports menu, select the Events report; filter for Policy Manager in the Report Wizard.
D. In Network Management Home, click the Events tab; filter for Policy Manager; click the Print button.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which misconfiguration on PCM+ causes ProCurve NIM to fail to detect any anomalies in traffic?
A. the wrong sFlow version
B. an incorrect operator password
C. an incorrect manager password
D. an incorrect SNMP community name
Answer: D

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NO.16 When should the unified NIM + IDS deployment option be used?
A. to take immediate action to protect key resources and also track threats to the source
B. to add threat protection to the features of ProCurve NIM, which include only threat detection
C. to allow ProCurve NIM to mirror suspicious traffic to an external device for additional analysis
D. to protect against threats from wireless devices, which ProCurve NIM is not able to do on its own
Answer: C

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NO.17 How do you configure PCM+ to generate periodic reports?
A. Select the Reports button in the global toolbar.
B. Enable the periodic reports setting in PCM+ Preferences.
C. Configure the schedule in the appropriate Reports Wizard.
D. Create policies with schedule-driven alerts and report actions.
Answer: D

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NO.18 By default, which NBAD event will trigger traffic sampling on a port?
A. Duplicate IP
B. Virus Throttle
C. Protocol Anomaly
D. Packet Size Deviation
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which alert can be triggered by SNMP traps sent by ProCurve switches?
A. default External
B. default IP Fanout
C. default IP Spoofing
D. default Virus Throttle
E. default ProCurve SNMP
Answer: D

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NO.20 A network already has an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) that is installed between a group of
servers and the rest of the network. Which benefits does ProCurve NIM add in a NIM + IPS deployment?
(Select two.)
A. deep packet inspection
B. signature-based detection
C. remediation of infected endpoints
D. protection for other resources throughout the network
E. applies actions closer to the point of origin of the attack
Answer: DE

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NO.21 Click the Exhibit button.
What are reasons to configure the policy settings shown in the exhibit? (Select two.)
A. You want the policy to respond to threats from offenders within this group.
B. You want ProCurve NIM to apply the policy for threats detected in this group.
C. You have set the policy to a source group, so you must set the target group to match.
D. You want to enable dynamic local port mirroring on set ports, which compose this group.
E. The policy action is MAC Lockout, and you want to lock the offender out of the entire group.
Answer: DE

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NO.22 What is the intended purpose of the default traffic sampling action of ProCurve NIM?
A. to prevent ProCurve NIM from triggering false positives
B. to help PCM+/NIM periodically begin to monitor new ports
C. to send traffic for increased analysis to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. to allow ProCurve NIM to take immediate action against the most probable threats
Answer: B

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NO.23 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information shown in the exhibit, what do you know about alerts on the 10.1.1.1 device over the
last five hours? (Note: The orange color corresponds with Major severity.)
A. The device has received only Major alerts.
B. The majority of alerts on the device are Major alerts.
C. The highest severity for an alert on this device is Major.
D. The most recent alert received on the device was a Major alert.
Answer: C

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NO.24 Your company's regulatory compliance group has asked you for a record of changes to the Policy
Manager policies. Which report should you generate?
A. Security Audit
B. Actions by Policy
C. Executed Policies
D. Automation (Policy) History
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which action can help you troubleshoot a policy in realtime from PCM?
A. Port Mirror
B. Notify (Email)
C. Message Dialog
D. Traffic Sampling
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which features are provided in a ProCurve NIM standalone deployment? (Select two.)
A. threat mitigation without the aid of PCM+
B. resetting of TCP sessions when threats are detected
C. signature-based detection of worms and other attacks
D. applying mitigation actions near the source of the threat
E. application of different policies based on the threat's place of origin
Answer: DE

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NO.27 What should you do to set up your network infrastructure for remote mirroring?
A. Enable jumbo frames.
B. Enable frame fragmentation.
C. Raise the maximum transmit unit (MTU).
D. Reserve uplink ports for the mirroring session.
Answer: A

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NO.28 What is a feature of anomaly-based threat detection but not signature-based threat detection?
A. detecting worms
B. detecting DoS attacks
C. detecting protocol anomalies
D. detecting undocumented attacks
Answer: D

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NO.29 Click the Exhibit button.
You are configuring a Quarantine VLAN action.
Which area in the exhibit displays settings that allow ProCurve NIM to always place the offender in the
Quarantine VLAN?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which events can be signs of an unauthorized port scan? (Select two.)
A. Port Anomaly
B. DNS Tunneling
C. TCP/UDP Fanout
D. UDP Protocol Anomaly
E. TCP Protocol Anomaly
Answer: CE

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Code d'Examen: HP0-795
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProLiant Systems Management)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 What type of information is collected during a single instance data collection in Insight Manager 7?
A. data detailing the device's log history
B. data that contains all device names
C. data detailing the device's access failure history
D. a snapshot of a device as new data become available.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What controls the number of devices Insight Manager will ping?
A. The subnet where Insight Manager 7 is installed
B. The specified inclusion range minus exclusions
C. The returned subnets
D. The contents of the server's active routing table
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is required to configure an SNMP manageable device using the Insight Manager 7?
A. Configure the trap destination to a server running Insight Manager 7.
B. Reassign the traps to Unknown.
C. Modify the MIB information.
D. Display the SNMP Extensions menu and make configuration change
Answer: A

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NO.4 You notice an increase in network traffic after modifying the SNMP settings for a device in Insight
Manager 7.What is the cause of this problem?
A. timeout value has been set too low.
B. Timeout value has been set too high
C. Retries setting has been set too low
D. Retries setting has been enabled
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which component of Management Agent collects information for the host server, including clustering
software version , and external MIB status?
A. Storage Agents
B. Server Agents
C. NIC Agents
D. Foundation Agents
Answer: D

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NO.6 What does Insight Manager 7 use to communicate with the database?
A. MSDE
B. ODBC
C. Node CMX
D. SSL
Answer: B

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NO.7 When you create a new server certificate within Insight Manager 7, when does the new certificate take
effect?
A. The next time you browse into Insight Manager 7.
B. The next time you browse into a device from a device link.
C. After the Insight Manager 7 service is restarted.
D. Immediately after you create the new certificate.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What application is designed to help maximize server availability by streamlining the configuration
analysis and troubleshooting?
A. Management Agents
B. ActiveUpdate
C. Availability Agent
D. Survey Utility
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which utility lets you send emails of specific Management Agent events to any email address?
A. Management EventNotifier
B. OS Management for Windows
C. SMTP Management Gateway
D. Winsock API
Answer: A

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NO.10 When registering a MIB in Insight Manager 7. What is the default status of all traps?
A. Disabled
B. Erased
C. Stopped
D. Enabled
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which component of the Management Agents collects and displays clustering and software version
information?
A. Server Agents
B. Version Control Agents
C. Foundation Agents
D. Storage Agents
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which Insight Manager 7 utility enables you to modify the default behavior of discovery and
identification?
A. Device Type Manager
B. External Links
C. SNMP Extensions
D. Paging Status
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which applications or components can be used to access Web-enabled Management Agents? Select
TWO.
A. Survey Utility
B. Browser
C. Management application
D. Availability agents
E. Configuration script
Answer: B, C

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NO.14 You have just added a new storage subsystem to your server. You need to update the Management
Agents to support the new storage system. When performing the update, which component or
components must be updated at a minimum?
A. Foundation Agents only
B. Server Agents only
C. Storage Agents only
D. Foundation Agents and Storage Agents
E. Server Agents and Storage Agents
Answer: C

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NO.15 If you have a cluster service type that is not predefined in Insight Manager7.
What action should you perform?
A. Substitute the enterprise number and cluster type number for the service name.
B. Update the alert list and post a Cluster Monitor Extension.
C. Collect software and firmware information from the managed server.
D. Use the configured repository to define the cluster service.
Answer: A

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NO.16 A server that was running at acceptable performance once week ago is now experiencing severs
performance problems. Which tools can be used to identify whether any changed were made to the
server's hardware configuration within the last week?
A. Version Control Repository Manager
B. Version Control Agents
C. Survey Utility
D. Management Toolkit
Answer: C

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NO.17 How is a list of clusters identified in Insight Manager 7?
A. Task list
B. Scope
C. Polling
D. Query
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which application provides the latest information on hardware and preinstalled software changes for
HP
products?
A. Product Change Notification
B. Insight Manager 7
C. Availability Agents
D. Integration Server
Answer: A

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NO.19 There has been a catastrophic system failure and a loss of the Insight Manager 7 database. What can
you
do to quickly repopulate Insight Manager 7 with a list of managed devices?
A. Create and run an auto-discovery script
B. Import a backup hosts file
C. Enable HTTP Auto-Discovery and open a web page on each device to automatically add devices.
D. Enable SNMP Trap Auto-Discovery and trigger devices on your network to send SNMP traps.
Answer: B

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NO.20 What are valid Insight Manager 7 status levels? Select TWO.
A. Major
B. Offline
C. Online
D. Caution
E. Unknown
Answer: A, E

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Code d'Examen: HP2-056
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP ProCurve Sales Professional)
Questions et réponses: 35 Q&As

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NO.1 What isTCP/IP?
A.the ability to provide both electrical power and network connectivity over the same
wire
B.the most common communication protocol
C. the implementation of Layers 1 and 2 of the OSI model
D.a network transceiver/converter
Answer: B

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NO.2 This layer defines local hardware addresses and may use Ethernet to provide this
function.
A.Layer 1
B.Layer 2
C.Layer 3
D.Layer 4
Answer: B

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NO.3 The original IEEE standard for Wireless LANswas802.11b.What is the only new
standard that is backwards compatible with 802.11b?
A.802.11a
B. 802.11i
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which cable is most widely used for making network connections to the desktop today?
A.Thicknet
B. Fiber
C.Twisted pair
D.Thinnet
Answer: C

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NO.5 All devices in a Local Area Network (LAN) are _______.
A. in the same broadcast domain
B. in separate transmission systems
C. connected by telephone lines
D.connected to a router
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J27
Nom d'Examen: HP (Advanced SAN Architecture )
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

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NO.1 During an infrastructure assessment, which SAN management category ensures that data is available
and accessible?
A.SAN fabric management
B.SAN usage and monitoring
C.SAN storage management
D.SAN data management
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which critical areas must the SAN architect be able to discuss during SAN design? (Select three.)
A.data protection
B.data availability
C.data replication
D.SAN scalability
E.high availability
F.SAN availability
Answer:A B D

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NO.3 Your customer wants to migrate from a monolithic to a modular SAN design. Which benefits does the
new design provide the customer? (Select two.)
A.minimum complexity
B.lowest number of SAN switch ports
C.mainframe connectivity
D.consistent throughput and performance
E.very high scalability
Answer:D E

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NO.4 Which FCIP device supports HP B-series, but not C-series Fibre Channel switches for SAN extension?
A.SAN Valley SL1000 IP-SAN Gateway
B.HP StorageWorks MPX100
C.HP StorageWorks SR2122-2 IP Storage Router
D.HP StorageWorks Multiprotocol Router
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which naming schemes are used by iSCSI nodes? (Select two.)
A.iSCSI qualified name
B.enterprise unique identifier
C.SLP service number
D.fully qualified domain name
E.world wide network identifier
Answer:A B

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